guidrydestinie98 guidrydestinie98
  • 10-04-2017
  • Mathematics
contestada

Two angles and one side in a triangle are equivalent to those in another triangle. Are the remaining sides and angles equivalent?

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omabdulrahman00
omabdulrahman00 omabdulrahman00
  • 10-04-2017
It depends if the one side is in between the angles or not. 
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LaShantee03 LaShantee03
  • 10-04-2017
yes, they would be equivalent because the only difference between them would be that they are reduced by a number.
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